The actions of a state do not justify prejudice against a religious group
Mr Murphy writes about “the link between” anti-Jewish prejudice and the faults of the state of Israel.
Since Mr Murphy is surely not an anti-Semite (and, as such, will not want to single out either the Jewish people or the Jewish state), perhaps we can broaden the discussion a bit?
For instance, would Mr Murphy think it appropriate to point at ‘the link between’ anti-Pakistani racism and the actions of Pakistan?
Would he wish to imply that anti-black racism can somehow be attributed to the actions of Nigeria, or to the state of affairs on the African continent? In my experience, the ‘reasons’ for racism of any kind are to be found entirely with the racists, and are not caused by their victims.
Surely, it cannot be Mr Murphy’s belief that every time a group of people has a grievance (justified or not), they are entitled to take it out on innocent people who belong to the ‘offending tribe’.
So, perhaps he would care to enlighten us (in his own words, rather than using quotes carefully selected and taken out of context) as to exactly what he meant with his comment?
